To what extent do you think that the language contributes to the continuing divide between genders? Consider the issue of linguistic relativity (Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis). Some languages highlight the difference between male and female speech, including different words for the pronoun “I”, for common nouns like “milk”, and grammatical forms. Do such languages inherently highlight the gender divide or are they simply representations of material differences in those cultures?
Write a brief analysis reflecting your own experiences with gendered linguistic differences. Consider how we can use language to promote equality between genders, including non-binary identifying people if you wish. Use specific empirical data to support your argument. You may also consider counter-arguments.
To what extent can we prohibit linguistic terms? Does this promote justice? How do we reconcile “free speech” with divisive terms?
Do words really make a difference? Consider the work on linguistic relativity (e.g. Whorf) and social capital (e.g. Bourdieu). If linguistic engineering is ethical, is it effective? That is to say, if there were no empirical differences in language use, would the gendered inequalities disappear?
Who decides? Words carry enormous meaning and much history. How can we reconcile that a word can mean different things to different people? For example, consider the term ‘lady’. Some people may consider it a term of respect while others may consider it a term of stereotyping.
How can we move to an equitable outcome that recognizes the human dignity of all people?