1. Is EU law a ‘source of law’ within the UK legal order? If the answer is in the affirmative, in what particular sense is it a source of law, i.e. with what particular features or limitations? Again, assuming an answer in the affirmative, what significance (if any) does this have regarding the permissibility of using the prerogative powers to withdraw from the EU treaties?
2. To what extent is it true (if at all) to say that the prerogative treaty-making powers can never be exercised in such a way as to alter law which applies within the United Kingdom? Does framing the question in terms of the ‘rights’ of British citizens or residents instead of the law applicable in the United Kingdom alter the answer?